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QUESTION 101
How is authentication handled with OSPFv3? Select the best response.

A.    OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B.    OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication.
C.    OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec.
D.    OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec.

Answer: C

QUESTION 102
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?

 

Select the best response.

A.    R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
B.    R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
C.    R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
D.    R4(config-router)# default-information originate

Answer: A

QUESTION 103
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.) Select 2 response(s).

A.    The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B.    The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C.    The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP.
D.    The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router.
E.    The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 104
Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is configured on all routers in the network. On a basis of the show ip eigrp topology output provided, what conclusion can be derived? Select the best response.

 

A.    Router R1 can send traffic destined for network 10.6.1.0/24 out of interface FastEthernet0/0.
B.     Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out before it
declares the neighbor unreachable.
C.    Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 to the hello message sent out inquiring
for a second successor to network 10.6.1.0/24.
D.    Router R1 is waiting for a reply from the neighbor 10.1.2.1 in response to the query sent out about
network 10.6.1.0/24.

Answer: D

QUESTION 105
Using the rules for IPv6 addressing, how can the address 2031:0000:240F:0000:0000:09C0:123A:121B be rewritten? Select the best response.

A.    2031:0:240F::09C0:123A:121B
B.    2031::240F::09C0:123A:121B
C.    2031::240F:9C0::123A:121B
D.    2031::240F:::09C0:123A:121B

Answer: A

QUESTION 106
What is the difference between the IPv6 addresses ::/0 and ::/128? Select the best response.

A.    ::/0 is the unspecified address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
B.    ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the anycast address.
C.    ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
D.    ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
E.    ::/0 is the default route, and ::/128 is the unspecified address.
F.    ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the default address.

Answer: E

QUESTION 107
Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.) Select 3 response(s).

A.    No virtual links are allowed.
B.    The area cannot be a backbone area.
C.    Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D.     The area has no more than 10 routers.
E.    No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F.    Interarea routes are suppressed.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 108
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? Select 3 response(s).

 

A.    The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
B.    The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.
C.    The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values
40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.
D.    The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
E.    All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set
to 8.
F.     The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.

Answer: AEF

QUESTION 109
Which two statements are true about 6to4 tunnels? (Choose two.)

A.    In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be 0?002 and the next four bytes will
be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address.
B.    In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be locally derived and the next two bytes
will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address.
C.    In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/48
IPv6 address.
D.    In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/16
IPv6 address.
E.    In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:1315:4463:1::/64
IPv6 address.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 110
Which IPv4-mapped IPv6 address is equivalent to IPv6 address ::ffff:AC11:AC11? Select the best response.

A.    ::ffff:10.12.10.12
B.    ::ffff:10.14.10.14
C.    ::ffff44.49.44.49
D.    ::ffff161.193.161.193
E.    ::ffff 172.17.172.17
F.    ::ffff193.11.193.11

Answer: E

QUESTION 111
The Dev-1 and Dev-3 routers are OSPF neighbors over the Ethernet 0/0 connection. Based on the show ip ospf neighbor output from the Dev-1 and Dev-3 routers, which statement is true? Select the best response.

 

A.    Dev-1 is the DR because it has a higher OSPF router priority.
B.    Dev-1 is the DR because it has a lower OSPF router ID.
C.    Dev-3 is the DR because it has a higher OSPF router priority.
D.    Dev-3 is the DR because it has a lower OSPF router ID.
E.    Both Dev-1 and Dev-3 are using the default OSPF router priority.

Answer: A

QUESTION 112
During a recent OSPF election among three routers, RTA was elected the DR and RTB was elected the BDR, as seen in the graphic. Assume that RTA fails, and that RTB takes the place of the DR while RTC becomes the new BDR. What will happen when RTA comes back online?

 

Select the best response.

A.    RTA will take the place of DR immediately upon establishing its adjacencies.
B.    RTA will take the place of DR only if RTB fails.
C.    RTA will take the place of DR only if both RTB and RTC fail.
D.    A new election will take place establishing an all new DR and BDR based on configured priority
levels and MAC addresses.

Answer: C

QUESTION 113
By default, which statement is correct regarding the redistribution of routes from other routing protocols into OSPF? Select the best response.

A.    They will appear in the OSPF routing table as type E1 routes.
B.    They will appear in the OSPF routing table as type E2 routes.
C.    Summarized routes are not accepted.
D.    All imported routes will be automatically summarized when possible.
E.    Only routes with lower administrative distances will be imported.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Type E1 external routes calculate the cost by adding the external cost to the internal cost of each link that the packet crosses while the external cost of E2 packet routes is always the external cost only. E2 is useful if you do not want internal routing to determine the path. E1 is useful when internal routing should be included in path selection. E2 is the default external metric when redistributing routes from other routing protocols into OSPF.

QUESTION 114
What are three key concepts that apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub and spoke network? (Choose three.)

A.    A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router.
B.    Only remote routers are configured as stubs.
C.    Stub routers are not queried for routes.
D.    Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router.
E.    A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors.
F.    EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only.

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 115
An administrator types in the command router ospf 1 and receives the error message:

“OSPF process 1 cannot start.” (Output is omitted.)

What should be done to correctly set up OSPF? Select the best response.

A.    Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address.
B.    Ensure that an interface has been configured with an IP address and is up.
C.    Ensure that IP classless is enabled.
D.    Ensure that the interfaces can ping their directly connected neighbors.

Answer: B

QUESTION 116
Which three benefits does the Cisco Easy Virtual Network provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.)

A.    simplified Layer 3 network virtualization
B.    improved shared services support
C.    enhanced management, troubleshooting, and usability
D.    reduced configuration and deployment time for dot1q trunking
E.    increased network performance and throughput
F.    decreased BGP neighbor configurations

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 117
The enterprise network WAN link has been receiving several denial of service attacks from both IPv4 and IPv6 sources. Which three elements can you use to identify an IPv6 packet via its header, in order to filter future attacks? (Choose three.)

A.    Traffic Class
B.    Source address
C.    Flow Label
D.    Hop Limit
E.    Destination Address
F.    Fragment Offset

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 118
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?

A.    typically is not fragmented
B.    typically is fragmented
C.    causes windowing
D.    causes excessive delays for video traffic

Answer: A

QUESTION 119
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the configuration is true?

 

A.    20 packets are being sent every 30 seconds.
B.    The monitor starts at 12:05:00 a.m.
C.    Jitter is being tested with TCP packets to port 65051.
D.    The packets that are being sent use DSCP EF.

Answer: A

QUESTION 120
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the command output is true?

 

A.    The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on UDP port 5127.
B.    The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on UDP port 5127.
C.    The router exports flow information to 10.10.10.1 on TCP port 5127.
D.    The router receives flow information from 10.10.10.2 on TCP port 5127.

Answer: A

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